My lease is up in January but my downstairs neighbor who essentially pays the same rent as me has received their 60 day notice for a rent increase of 25%.
I requested my rent history and had him request his as well and while it looks to me like his was likely properly destabilized (rent over $2K in 2009), something seems off on mine. Probably nothing, but it seems a little odd.
I got my RS history from 1984 through 2006 when it was exempt due to a "High Rent Vacancy". What I don't understand is how this was applied to my apartment when the legal regulated rent at the time was $1,586/mo, and the threshold at the time was $2,000. The last unit improvement listed on the history was done in 2000. My kitchen and bathroom are very old and in poor condition, especially in comparison to others in my building which might make sense considering my downstairs neighbors history shows improvements every year between 2001-2005.
How could my apartment have been legally destabilized due to high rent vacancy when the legal rent was 26% below the threshold and it doesnt seem to have experienced any significant improvements? I'm sure I am wrong here but something doesnt add up to me.
Maybe it has to do with the fact that he officially bought the building around that time in 2006-2007 and he didnt have to keep the apartment stabilized under new ownership?
Any insight from someone knowledgeable on this subject would be much appreciated!
Also, my landlord just gave my neighbor written notice of the 25% increase and has required him to turn back around the notice in less than a week so that he has notice 60 days in advance. Is there no law or rules that requires a certain period of time for the tenant to consider the increase before responding (even if it is destabilized)? It seems unfair to give him only a few days notice but expect 60 days notice for himself.