Posted by Philip Clark on December 08, 2001 at 09:45:24:
Recently, my landlord (he owns the unit I rent from him, it's a co-op building) claimed that due to a billing error, he was paying the incorrect mortgage amout, and that I will now have to pay a portion of this amount as a rent increase, retroactively. Is this legal? Where in my lease should I refer to this as "added rent"? He has not increased my rent in three years, and we signed a new lease in July of last year, good until August of 2002. Any suggestions would help. Can I request that such an amount be added in the lease signing for 2002? Am I responsible for any of this billing error?
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