Posted by Stephanie on August 03, 2001 at 18:43:17:
About a year ago we rented a mobile home from a guy my husband works with. At the time there was no discussion other than how much the rent was and when it was due. We did not pay any deposit. We were offered another house in a nice neighborhood and had to take it right away or we would miss our chance. We were offered the house on 7/29/01 and had to move in by 8/01/01, we did. We notified this guy on 07/29/01 the day we found out. We explained the situation but he was still mad. He said even without an agreement we had to give 30 days notice, we disagree. Back when we were to rent the house we signed a piece of paper for him to give his bank which stated we would occupy the house for a minimum of 1 year. That year is up 8/05/01. Could that be considered a year lease? There was never any details discussed as far as an agreement is concerned. Now he is threatening to take us to court for 1 months rent. Is that right? Are we legally bound to give a month's notice? How will this end up in court?
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