Posted by Mindy on April 19, 2000 at 17:45:09:
I am curently awaiting a petition for non-payment.
I live in a rentstabilized room in a hotel.
The current landlord is collecting payments incurred
for the period of Sep 98 through now, although I still
owe some rent for prior to Sep 98. Since receiving a
demand for payment I have paid additional rent and
should owe no more for Sep 98 to now.
However, during Sep 1998 the landlord bought out the
previous landlord to whom I owed some rent as well for part of 98.
My question is two-fold:
1. When I paid up the rent owed for Sep 98 and
now, could that money have been applied to my previous
balance, pre-Sep 98?
2. When ownership of the hotel/building changes, is the new owner obligated to inform tenants about about outstanding balances and attempt to collect.
Is there a way to find out if the new landlord bought
the Accounts Receivable alng with the hotel?
My basic concern is: could he have apllied rent paid between Sep 98 - present, as listed on the demand for payment, and applied it to ealier arrears under a different landlord
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