Posted by TRACY on February 18, 2000 at 12:27:37:
I have an aunt who has lived in a rent stabalized unit for 30 years. In May of 1997 a new owner took over building. Up until then, there were no yearly leases (only original lease from 1969). The new owner did not have her sign a lease until December of 1998. The Dec 98' lease does not appear to me to be a Vacancy or Renewal lease, just a standard apartment lease. The new owner has now told her he is not planning on renewing due to a owner occupancy law. I do understand all of the criteria he needs to follow for to be able to evict under that, but I am trying to review all her paperwork to see if he has done anything else incorrectly. This lease seems to be a possible problem for him. My questions are...
1. Since she did not have an actual lease since 1969, should she have signed a Vacancy or Renewal or something else?
2. Is it a problem that it took him 1 1/2 yrs to give her a lease after he purchased building (Now we see he suddently wanted a lease since he couldn't get her out until a lease came up for renewal)?
3. Is the lease valid if it is not the proper one he needed to have her sign?
4. Does anyone know the number/info of any lawyers with great track records in owner occupancy evictions that I can call to speak to regarding all of this?
Thanks for any info!!
Note: Posting is disabled in all archives
Post a Followup